What did Paul mean that Christ was the "end" of the law?
From Theonomy Wiki
When the apostle Paul wrote the following:
4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.Romans 10:4KJV
Paul was not suggesting (contrary to Jesus' own words in Matt. 5:17) that Christ "ended" (as in abolished) the whole law. The Greek word (typically translated as "end" in the passage above) which Paul used is telos, (from which we get our term "teleology"). It can mean either "temporal end" or "goal." No matter which of these translation options we take, it fits with Jesus' purpose of fulfilling the law by completing its typological/didactic purpose:
- Christ was the temporal end of many of the sacrificial laws which foreshadowed his once-for-all sacrifice. These laws were covenantally-bound, and are no longer binding.
- Christ was the final goal of the law, which pointed towards his finished work in many ways.
