Translations:Didn't the law under the Sinai Covenant allow divorce for any cause?/18/en

From Theonomy Wiki

2. In the first century, the divorce law in Deut. 24:1 had been thoroughly discussed by rabbinic interpreters, who split over the intended meaning of the term "matter of nakedness." The Hillel school believed that it allowed for a husband to divorce his wife for "any cause." This is why the Pharisees chose the phrase "πᾶσαν αἰτίαν" in Matt. 19:3. The Shammai school believed that divorce was only allowed for some public indecency, such as a wife going around in public with her head uncovered.[1] Even though Jesus contradicted both of these rabbinic schools, some Christians still claim that Jesus was actually changing the Deut. 24 divorce law, rather than asserting the original meaning of "nakedness" as "fornication." But as Peter Craigie writes: "in Jesus' response to the Pharisee (Mark 10:4), he is not so much changing the law of Deut. 24:1-4, as bringing out its true meaning...."[2]

  1. R. T. France, The Gospel of Matthew, Eerdmans Publishing Company, 2007, p. 209
  2. Craigie, The Book of Deuteronomy, NICOT, p. 305