Literal (temporal) or symbolic language?

From Theonomy Wiki

There is no reason to look for an exact temporal fulfillment of this verse; the language is prophetic, figurative of a momentous act of God in human history and parallels the quote from Joel that Peter reported as being fulfilled in the time of Acts (Acts 2:20); (also cf. the language used with regard to the judgment of Babylon [539 B.C.] in Is 13:10,13, judgment of Egypt [663 B.C.] in Is 19:1-4, judgment of Edom [late 6th cent. B.C.] in Is 34:4, judgment of the northern kingdom [722 B.C.] in Amos 8:9, judgment of Judah [586 B.C.] in Joel 2:10); cf. Joel 3:15-16. "powers of the heavens shaken" - Heb 12:26-28;

However, for those who look for temporal fulfillment: smoke from the widespread burning of Jerusalem and surrounding cities would certainly darken the sun, moon, and stars; stars falling from heaven, if they are actual stars, would consume the earth in a massive thermonuclear destruction - how would there still be wailing tribes in the next verse? Or how would there be "chosen ones" left to be gathered in verse 31? And if we are talking about meteors, then obviously it is an astronomical certainty that there were meteor showers in the first century, just as there are today.


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