Difference between revisions of "Why didn't King Solomon punish the prostitutes who came to him for justice?"
From Theonomy Wiki
Line 1: | Line 1: | ||
{{:Navleft|Category:Answered Questions|Answered Questions}} | {{:Navleft|Category:Answered Questions|Answered Questions}} | ||
− | + | ||
In 1 Kings 3:16, harlots came before King Solomon for justice. Why didn't he punish them for being harlots? Does this mean that prostitution was legal in Israel? | In 1 Kings 3:16, harlots came before King Solomon for justice. Why didn't he punish them for being harlots? Does this mean that prostitution was legal in Israel? | ||
− | |||
− | + | Just because prostitutes are mentioned in a descriptive passage of scripture, it doesn't follow that prostitution was either legal or even tolerated. It might be true that prostitution was tolerated by a given community described in the scriptural narrative. But we would have to infer this from something other than this passage about King Solomon. | |
+ | |||
+ | |||
{{DISPLAYTITLE:{{PAGENAME}}}} | {{DISPLAYTITLE:{{PAGENAME}}}} | ||
− | |||
− | |||
+ | [[Category:1 Kings 3:16]] | ||
[[Category:Answered Questions]] | [[Category:Answered Questions]] | ||
[[Category:Questions about the historical application of Biblical law]] | [[Category:Questions about the historical application of Biblical law]] | ||
− |
Revision as of 13:59, 20 July 2020
In 1 Kings 3:16, harlots came before King Solomon for justice. Why didn't he punish them for being harlots? Does this mean that prostitution was legal in Israel?
Just because prostitutes are mentioned in a descriptive passage of scripture, it doesn't follow that prostitution was either legal or even tolerated. It might be true that prostitution was tolerated by a given community described in the scriptural narrative. But we would have to infer this from something other than this passage about King Solomon.