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Message definition (What was the purpose of the Numbers 5 dusty(or "bitter") water test? )
It isn't obvious to me that a wife could be forced to make such an oath even under the Sinai Covenant. An oath such as this is a form of witness testimony, and in no other legal case can someone be required to testify against themselves. It seems to me that a wife had the option simply to refuse the husband's request. This refusal would not have any civil, legal implications, but it might have been used by the husband as sufficient justification (along with other circumstantial evidence which caused him to suspect the unfaithfulness in the first place) to give his wife a writ of divorcement (Deut. 24:1). Nothing could prevent the husband from doing this (unless he himself had committed a prior sin that prevented divorce: Deut. 22:14-19), and if the marriage covenant had actually been broken by an act of unfaithfulness by the wife, then the husband's act of "putting her away" would not be a sin on his part (Matt. 19:9).
It isn't obvious to me that a wife could be forced to make such an oath even under the Sinai Covenant. An oath such as this is a form of witness testimony, and in no other legal case can someone be required to testify against themselves. It seems to me that a wife had the option simply to refuse the husband's request. This refusal would not have any civil, legal implications, but it might have been used by the husband as sufficient justification (along with other circumstantial evidence which caused him to suspect the unfaithfulness in the first place) to give his wife a writ of divorcement (Deut. 24:1). Nothing could prevent the husband from doing this (unless he himself had committed a prior sin that prevented divorce: Deut. 22:14-19), and if the marriage covenant had actually been broken by an act of unfaithfulness by the wife, then the husband's act of "putting her away" would not be a sin on his part (Matt. 19:9). Translation It isn't obvious to me that a wife could be forced to make such an oath even under the Sinai Covenant. An oath such as this is a form of witness testimony, and in no other legal case can someone be required to testify against themselves. It seems to me that a wife had the option simply to refuse the husband's request. This refusal would not have any civil, legal implications, but it might have been used by the husband as sufficient justification (along with other circumstantial evidence which caused him to suspect the unfaithfulness in the first place) to give his wife a writ of divorcement (Deut. 24:1). Nothing could prevent the husband from doing this (unless he himself had committed a prior sin that prevented divorce: Deut. 22:14-19), and if the marriage covenant had actually been broken by an act of unfaithfulness by the wife, then the husband's act of "putting her away" would not be a sin on his part (Matt. 19:9). It isn't obvious to me that a wife could be forced to make such an oath even under the Sinai Covenant. An oath such as this is a form of witness testimony, and in no other legal case can someone be required to testify against themselves. It seems to me that a wife had the option simply to refuse the husband's request. This refusal would not have any civil, legal implications, but it might have been used by the husband as sufficient justification (along with other circumstantial evidence which caused him to suspect the unfaithfulness in the first place) to give his wife a writ of divorcement (Deut. 24:1). Nothing could prevent the husband from doing this (unless he himself had committed a prior sin that prevented divorce: Deut. 22:14-19), and if the marriage covenant had actually been broken by an act of unfaithfulness by the wife, then the husband's act of "putting her away" would not be a sin on his part (Matt. 19:9).
