Difference between revisions of "Translations:Is the polygyny of the Old Covenant allowed in the New Covenant age?/8/en"

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Message definition (Is the polygyny of the Old Covenant allowed in the New Covenant age?)

There was nothing immoral about polygyny under the Old Covenant. So neither Jacob <ref>Some people might object that Jacob preceded the law given under the Sinai Covenant. This is true, but irrelevant, because God revealed his laws prior to Sinai, and everyone recognizes that Jesus, in Matt. 19, appeals to this revelation of law which preceded Sinai.</ref> nor David were sinning by having more than one wife simultaneously. Of course the ideal form of marriage is clear from:

There was nothing immoral about polygyny under the Old Covenant. So neither Jacob <ref>Some people might object that Jacob preceded the law given under the Sinai Covenant. This is true, but irrelevant, because God revealed his laws prior to Sinai, and everyone recognizes that Jesus, in Matt. 19, appeals to this revelation of law which preceded Sinai.</ref> nor David were sinning by having more than one wife simultaneously. Of course the ideal form of marriage is clear from:

TranslationThere was nothing immoral about polygyny under the Old Covenant. So neither Jacob <ref>Some people might object that Jacob preceded the law given under the Sinai Covenant. This is true, but irrelevant, because God revealed his laws prior to Sinai, and everyone recognizes that Jesus, in Matt. 19, appeals to this revelation of law which preceded Sinai.</ref> nor David were sinning by having more than one wife simultaneously. Of course the ideal form of marriage is clear from:

There was nothing immoral about polygyny under the Old Covenant. So neither Jacob ^[1] nor David were sinning by having more than one wife simultaneously. Of course the ideal form of marriage is clear from:

↑ Some people might object that Jacob preceded the law given under the Sinai Covenant. This is true, but irrelevant, because God revealed his laws prior to Sinai, and everyone recognizes that Jesus, in Matt. 19, appeals to this revelation of law which preceded Sinai.

[1] Some people might object that Jacob preceded the law given under the Sinai Covenant. This is true, but irrelevant, because God revealed his laws prior to Sinai, and everyone recognizes that Jesus, in Matt. 19, appeals to this revelation of law which preceded Sinai.

[1]