Latest revision as of 22:00, 19 November 2020
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Message definition (Does Joseph's intent to divorce Mary show that the death penalty for adultery was not mandatory? )
On the other hand, Joseph had a Biblical right to divorce Mary <em>privately</em> without having to prove adultery (Deut. 24), and that's what he was planning to do. This is yet another point which Kayser gets wrong:
On the other hand, Joseph had a Biblical right to divorce Mary <em>privately</em> without having to prove adultery (Deut. 24), and that's what he was planning to do. This is yet another point which Kayser gets wrong: Translation On the other hand, Joseph had a Biblical right to divorce Mary <em>privately</em> without having to prove adultery (Deut. 24), and that's what he was planning to do. This is yet another point which Kayser gets wrong: On the other hand, Joseph had a Biblical right to divorce Mary privately without having to prove adultery (Deut. 24), and that's what he was planning to do. This is yet another point which Kayser gets wrong:
