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Message definition (Does Joseph's intent to divorce Mary show that the death penalty for adultery was not mandatory? )
This may surprise some people, but under Biblical law, men were not required to get permission from the civil government to divorce their wives (Deut. 24:1). I'll discuss this in greater detail below, because this is another point which Kayser gets wrong. Men <em>were</em> required by Biblical law to issue a "writ of divorcement," but this was not "supervised" or "authorized" by any judge, and did not require any public (or even private) "prosecution." Under Biblical law, a judge would only be sought out (by Mary, presumably) if Joseph refused to give her the writ, as he was required to by law.
This may surprise some people, but under Biblical law, men were not required to get permission from the civil government to divorce their wives (Deut. 24:1). I'll discuss this in greater detail below, because this is another point which Kayser gets wrong. Men <em>were</em> required by Biblical law to issue a "writ of divorcement," but this was not "supervised" or "authorized" by any judge, and did not require any public (or even private) "prosecution." Under Biblical law, a judge would only be sought out (by Mary, presumably) if Joseph refused to give her the writ, as he was required to by law. Translation This may surprise some people, but under Biblical law, men were not required to get permission from the civil government to divorce their wives (Deut. 24:1). I'll discuss this in greater detail below, because this is another point which Kayser gets wrong. Men <em>were</em> required by Biblical law to issue a "writ of divorcement," but this was not "supervised" or "authorized" by any judge, and did not require any public (or even private) "prosecution." Under Biblical law, a judge would only be sought out (by Mary, presumably) if Joseph refused to give her the writ, as he was required to by law. This may surprise some people, but under Biblical law, men were not required to get permission from the civil government to divorce their wives (Deut. 24:1). I'll discuss this in greater detail below, because this is another point which Kayser gets wrong. Men were required by Biblical law to issue a "writ of divorcement," but this was not "supervised" or "authorized" by any judge, and did not require any public (or even private) "prosecution." Under Biblical law, a judge would only be sought out (by Mary, presumably) if Joseph refused to give her the writ, as he was required to by law.
