Difference between revisions of "Translations:Does Joseph's intent to divorce Mary show that the death penalty for adultery was not mandatory?/14/en"
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Latest revision as of 22:00, 19 November 2020
Given all of the above facts, is it any wonder that Joseph could not have gotten a "just" outcome from any court he had access to? Can his choice not to go before unjust judges be used to imply anything about Biblical law?
