Difference between revisions of "Translations:Does Biblical law really allow a father to sell his daughter into slavery?/3/en"

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Message definition (Does Biblical law really allow a father to sell his daughter into slavery?)
A poor family with a daughter who wanted to be married (marriage is a Biblical covenant and [by definition] cannot be forced upon anyone) could allow her to commit herself in advance and start working in and serving the family that was going to be hers after marriage.<ref>Douglas Stuart, ''Exodus'', New American Commentary, 2006, pp. 482-483</ref> In return, her parents would receive ''mohar'', the Hebrew name for a bridewealth/brideprice payment, which would immediately relieve their poverty.
TranslationA poor family with a daughter who wanted to be married (marriage is a Biblical covenant and [by definition] cannot be forced upon anyone) could allow her to commit herself in advance and start working in and serving the family that was going to be hers after marriage.<ref>Douglas Stuart, ''Exodus'', New American Commentary, 2006, pp. 482-483</ref> In return, her parents would receive ''mohar'', the Hebrew name for a bridewealth/brideprice payment, which would immediately relieve their poverty.

A poor family with a daughter who wanted to be married (marriage is a Biblical covenant and [by definition] cannot be forced upon anyone) could allow her to commit herself in advance and start working in and serving the family that was going to be hers after marriage.[1] In return, her parents would receive mohar, the Hebrew name for a bridewealth/brideprice payment, which would immediately relieve their poverty.

  1. Douglas Stuart, Exodus, New American Commentary, 2006, pp. 482-483