Difference between revisions of "Translations:Are you allowed to use deadly force in defense of (mere) property?/9/en"
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| − | If we understand the cases this way, it shows that lethal force is not allowed for mere property crime. On the other hand, lethal force is allowable when there is a question about whether the intruder poses a threat of bodily harm (i.e. at night). The homeowner is given the benefit of the legal doubt when the crime happens at night, but not if the sun is risen (the intruder can be clearly seen as a mere thief/burglar, and not a robber). This understanding make the best sense of the text. It is taken this way by R. Alan Cole, in his commentary on Exodus ( | + | If we understand the cases this way, it shows that lethal force is not allowed for mere property crime. On the other hand, lethal force is allowable when there is a question about whether the intruder poses a threat of bodily harm (i.e. at night). The homeowner is given the benefit of the legal doubt when the crime happens at night, but not if the sun is risen (the intruder can be clearly seen as a mere thief/burglar, and not a robber). This understanding make the best sense of the text. It is taken this way by R. Alan Cole, in his commentary on Exodus (Tyndale Old Testament Commentary series): |
Latest revision as of 18:00, 24 November 2020
If we understand the cases this way, it shows that lethal force is not allowed for mere property crime. On the other hand, lethal force is allowable when there is a question about whether the intruder poses a threat of bodily harm (i.e. at night). The homeowner is given the benefit of the legal doubt when the crime happens at night, but not if the sun is risen (the intruder can be clearly seen as a mere thief/burglar, and not a robber). This understanding make the best sense of the text. It is taken this way by R. Alan Cole, in his commentary on Exodus (Tyndale Old Testament Commentary series):
