Why didn't King Solomon punish the prostitutes who came to him for justice?
From Theonomy Wiki
In 1 Kings 3:16, harlots came before King Solomon for justice. Why didn't he punish them for being harlots? Does this mean that prostitution was legal in Israel?
Just because prostitutes are mentioned in a descriptive passage of scripture, it doesn't follow that prostitution was either legal or even tolerated. It might be true that prostitution was tolerated by a given community described in the scriptural narrative. But we would have to infer this from something other than this passage about King Solomon.